39
Pritish Chakraborty
·2010-04-09 05:01:51
\sum{F} = 0 => \vec{P} = constant => \vec{r} \times \vec{P} = constant => \vec{L} = constant
Hence (A), (C).
Note : Some would berate me and quote the example of a force couple to disprove this. Let me remind you that this is a system of particles and not a force couple. You can't tell whether those external forces are forming a couple or not.
Open to debate though....let's see.
1
madhumitha harishankar
·2010-04-09 05:55:39
Okay A is the only answer.
C is wrong becoz even though the sum of forces on a system might be zero, they could still produce a NET TORQUE, which would change both the angular P and the Rotational KE of the system.
And The formula, P times r, works for the case when ONE force alone acts on system, so that THERE IS ONLY ONE R. but when its forceS tat act on the system, u will have different r for each force, and as a net calculation, u Will get a change in angular momentum.
:)
1
madhumitha harishankar
·2010-04-09 06:00:59
And to clarify, B is also wrong as
Though Linear KE wont change, if angular momentum changes, rotational KE will also change!
39
Pritish Chakraborty
·2010-04-09 06:07:06
Thanks a ton for the clarification. So final ans is (A) only.
1
Zuko Alone
·2010-04-09 06:16:40
Answer is only A...
For a system of 'n' particles in which \sum_{1}^{n}{\vec{F_i}}=0:
\sum_{1}^{n}{\vec{P_i}}=constant
This certainly does NOT imply:
\sum_{1}^{n}{\vec{r_i}\times \vec{P_i}}=Constant
What Pritish had written is valid for a single particle system
49
Subhomoy Bakshi
·2010-04-09 06:40:07
precise and absolute...[3][3][1][1]