is this situation possible???

Consider this situation:
A fixed pulley carries a weightless thread with masses m1 and m2 at its ends. There is friction between the thread and the pulley.

How can there be friction when the thread is weightless?? where will the force μmg act? (since the thread is massless so m=0 so friction=0)

am i correct?

2 Answers

1
Philip Calvert ·

no.
There will be tension in the thread,
so we cannot necessarily say m=0 implies friction =0 .

and the better way to represent friction would be f= μN

106
Asish Mahapatra ·

arey haan understud. took the tensions to be horizontal[3][3]. [2][2]

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