LM

If the total mechanical energy of a particle is 0,is its LM necessarily 0 ? Is it necessarily nonzero ??

I think is shud b necessarily 0.

1 Answers

106

Asish Mahapatra ·2009-05-14 20:38:08

total mechanical energy = 0
i.e. KE + PE = 0
the PE of a body at the surface of the earth taking âˆž as reference = -GMm/R or -mgR

If the KE of the body is such that mv²/2 = mgR then total mechanical energy = 0

But it still has vâ‰ 0
So, LMâ‰ 0

So, it depends on what is taken as reference for PE and the reference frame also

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