yeah got it.........
thnx dude.....
calculate initial acceleration as a=F/m .... (i)
calculate initial angular acceleration as α=5F/2mR ..... (ii)
Now, αR = 5F/2m > a
==> there is backward slipping
==> friction will act in direction of F
why neil?
I dont think it should be.. but why do you want to do that?
the application of force is not along the line of centre of mass..or tangential..so how do we know what is the exact force involved with rotation and that with translation..since only F is applied, it can't be fully used to do both simultaneously right?