F=1,same like E=-∂V/∂x
The potential energy of a force field is given by U(x,y) = sin(x+y) . The force acting on the particle of mass m at (0,pi/4) is:
(A) 1
(B) root 2
(C) 1/root 2
(D) zero
i m usin F = -dU/dr .............but after that what shud i do??
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UP 0 DOWN 0 0 2
2 Answers
qwerty
·2010-10-11 10:43:55
Fx =-∂U∂x = -cos(x+y) = - 1√2
Fy= -∂U∂y = - cos(x+y) = - 1√2
F = √Fx2+Fy2 = 1