Bertrand conjecture informs me that there is always a prime between n and 2n for n>3
Prove that if n>2,then there exists a prime p satisfying n>p>n!
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2 Answers
Devil
·2011-10-01 00:40:48
Shaswata Roy
·2011-10-01 10:43:48
It is correct but i want an actual proof rather than just linking the question to the betrand conjecture.