It is correct but i want an actual proof rather than just linking the question to the betrand conjecture.
Prove that if n>2,then there exists a prime p satisfying n>p>n!
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2 Answers
					
			Devil
					·2011-10-01 00:40:48
			
			
			Bertrand conjecture informs me that there is always a prime between n and 2n for n>3
					
			Shaswata Roy
					·2011-10-01 10:43:48
			
			
		
