Even i thot the same... (only cond is coherent sources).... but the answer is "no"....that means is interference a "visusal" effect??(only if it is visible to our eyes)i dont think so...
2 Answers
Dr.House
·2009-02-25 00:53:45
i think yes but it would be not observable by a naked eye.
if the sources are coherent , its possible.
sriraghav
·2009-02-25 00:58:58