well the fallacy is wen u divide both sides of eq (x+y)(x-y)=y(x-y) by (x-y)..............u cant divide it by (x-y) since u hav aassumed x=y so x-y is 0....and anything divided by 0 is undifined.... u cant do the division by 0.....hence u cant divide both sides of eq by (x-y)
let x=y,
so, x2=xy,
so, x2-y2=xy-y2
so, (x+y)(x-y)=y(x-y)
so, x+y=y
putting x=1,
1+1=1
or, 2=1.......which cannot be possible......so find the fallacy......
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2 Answers
eragon24 _Retired
·2009-11-14 05:08:19