15-04-09 Area of the sphere.

Prove that the surface area of the sphere is indeed what we read in our childhood as

4Ï€R2

24 Answers

1
Pavithra Ramamoorthy ·

Mmm... how cld i explain u!!!!!!!!!!

k.. byah.. wait...

9
Celestine preetham ·

jus the standard one passing thru centre ( u need to assume )

11
Mani Pal Singh ·

for finding the moment of inertia
whats the axis [12][12][12]

9
Celestine preetham ·

for volume its integration of 4pir2dr

For MOI its integration M/V(4pir2 dr)X r2 =M/V(4pir4dr)

proceeding ull get

3
iitimcomin ·

@eurekas question

ok ill do MI of sphere ...[method...:P]

u can visualise it as its chopped up into a number of discs ...[just like bfre]

now lets take a disc at dist. y frm center of sphere and its thickness be dy ...

its radius(r) = √R2 - y2 [ frm ricky pointingpythagoreas theorm [9]]

MI wrt center

1/2ρ pi r2 dy + ρ pi r2 dy y2

integrate the abve expression frm -R to +R in order to get the answer!!!!!!!!

1
Pavithra Ramamoorthy ·

dats rit..

k.. then.. no more confusions...

but i m sure wit dat proof in #3...

dats was actually one of d proofs in ma 11th book...

but neways its k........

62
Lokesh Verma ·

hmm.. but then what is length and diameter?

Even I remember having done something like that.. but i guess that now you know integration and stuff.. so there is no need to get lost in such old formulas :)

1
Pavithra Ramamoorthy ·

remember dat i read it in lower standards byah..........

not very sure of it.. but 95% sure... pls don scold.....;-(

24
eureka123 ·

thanx sir for ur permission.......[1][1]

62
Lokesh Verma ·

surface area = lenth * diameter..

where did this come from?

1
Pavithra Ramamoorthy ·

wat abt d post #2 ??

@byah!!

24
eureka123 ·

If Nishant sir permits....
Surface area was easy actually.....Can u derive Volume and moment of inertia of sphere???????????
it will be a bit tricky.[1][1]

1
Pavithra Ramamoorthy ·

isnt it simple???

surface area = lenth * diameter..

length i mean d perimeter..

so S.A=2pir*d

=2pir*(2r)

=4pir2

62
Lokesh Verma ·

ram I still din understand it.. :(

1
Pavithra Ramamoorthy ·

byah!!!!!!!!#6

1
skygirl ·

its okie ....

3
iitimcomin ·

sky vertical horizontal....all the same ... only ur perception,,,,

1
Philip Calvert ·

the surface area can be written as

\int_{0}^{\pi }{2\pi Rsin\theta .Rd\theta }

and we know that the integral of sin from 0 to π is 2 units

DONE!!
is it too subtle to need an explanation ?

1
skygirl ·

y vertical ?

y no horizontal ?

3
iitimcomin ·

takin vertical discs is easier actually

∫2pi(√R^2 - y^2)dy

within limits -R to +R ..............................

y is the distance of the center of the dic frm the center of the sphere ........

and we get the radius of the small discs using pythagoreas theorm [3]

1
Pavithra Ramamoorthy ·

considering d sphere to be intercepted between two parallel planes at a distance -r and +r frm d centre.. .....

62
Lokesh Verma ·

are you taking vertical discs?

I did not understand what circels you are taking?

1
Pavithra Ramamoorthy ·

byah.. dis proof is easy or suggest a better n easyone....

1
Pavithra Ramamoorthy ·

or dis way...



ignore d repetition in third image

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