Give the proof of LH rule when f(a)=0 and g(a)=0
f(x) is the numerator and g(x) is the denominator...
Trust me it is not very difficult..
Use the basic definition of Derivative...
(Sorry mistake galti ho gaya.)
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16 Answers
but sir why would we apply LH rule then?????????????????because it wont be indeterminate then.....
if both are in num. then the limit should be 0 :) what was to prove...........?........?....?
sorry galti ho gaya...
bhawna ko samjo ;)
aise haan this was not the proof i was looking for eureka.. but still this is good enuf...
There is a more "elegant" proof...
If we take derivative of both num and den... we cancel 0 making factor.. if both have only one root at that pt... diff 1nce is enough if two repeated roots then f'(x) will have one root so f'(a) will be also 0 so we have to diff again ...
Ltx→af(x)/g(x) =Lt h→0 f(a+h)/g(a+h)
=Lth→0 f(a+h)-f(a)/g(a+h)-g(a) ((using g(a)=f(a)=0))
=Lth→0 (f(a+h)-f(a)/h)/(g(a+h)-g(a)/h)
=Lt x→a f'(x)/g'(x)
was this what u where expecting or r u expecting some thing other than this
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