1 Answers
Harsh Bharvada
·2013-05-31 08:29:09
If we assume that n= (1 / cos y)..then y→ π/2..then proceeding answer is coming ∞.......is it the correct approach??
If we assume that n= (1 / cos y)..then y→ π/2..then proceeding answer is coming ∞.......is it the correct approach??