1
Manmay kumar Mohanty
·2010-05-19 05:00:52
since for x < 0 f(x) = 0 which is x - axis
and for x > 0 f(x) = 2x so
f(x) is continuous for all x
hence (a)
39
Pritish Chakraborty
·2010-05-19 05:07:29
Arey manmay...sum of two continuous functions(which are continuous everywhere) is also continuous everywhere na??
f(x) = 0 is a constant function...why shouldn't it be continuous?
Both the LHL and RHLs at x→0 are also 0...thus there is no breakage in the graph.
For a graph, it will be like f(x) = 2x with the part of x < 0 erased(as f(x) = 0 implies it is the X-axis).
39
Pritish Chakraborty
·2010-05-19 05:16:51
Arey...lol.
f(x) = 0 means X-axis....so for x < 0, the X-axis is your graph.
So for x < 0, the X-axis continues up till x = 0, where it tilts and becomes f(x) = 2x. There is no discontinuity.
If you have a doubt with the discontinuity part, put your finger on the X-axis and from -∞ take it till x = 0, from there go upwards on f(x) = 2x till +∞. You will see that you never had to take your finger even once off the curve(implying you were continuously tracing it). Hence there is no discontinuity anywhere.
1
Manmay kumar Mohanty
·2010-05-19 05:26:21
edited i thnk i agree with u now pritish :D
39
Pritish Chakraborty
·2010-05-19 05:35:27
Lol...that was how our FIITJEE maths sir told us...a rudimentary way to check continuity and feel it for yourself if you have the graph :P