Inverse trigonometric function?

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If Î£ (i = 1 to n) cos ^-1xi = 0 , then Î£(i=1 to n) xi is equal to?

(a)n (b)-n (c)0 (d) none of these

#Mathematics #Trignometry

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2 Answers

21

Shubhodip ·2011-10-13 10:29:44

(a)

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1

rishabh ·2011-10-14 10:46:44

@ shubhodip take n = 1
=> cos^-1 x₁ = 0

=> x₁ = pi2

and not 1 (=n)

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