Inverse trigonometric functions.

Number of solution(s) of the equation cos^{-1}(e^{x}) + sin^{-1}(kx^{2}-2)=\frac{\pi }{2},k>0, is

A)0 B) 1 C) 2 D) infinite

5 Answers

39
Pritish Chakraborty ·

For their sum to be pi/2, cos-1 and sin-1 must have same input.

ex = kx2 - 2

Ab toh solve kar hi loge?
Dunno if there's a restriction on that property though. Others better check this.

1
" ____________ ·

A .---- 0

1
" ____________ ·

NAHI SAME INPUT HO ZAROORI NAHI --- I THINK

VAISE MERA BHEJA EK DAM DULL HAI

1
Manmay kumar Mohanty ·

I guess my ans may be correct. That's A). I'm not sure it's A).

1
" ____________ ·

YAAR 0 HAI KOI DUSRA NAHI HO SAKTA

Your Answer

Close [X]